R_Wives

 It was a long and rainy week-end from a long and rainy Spring, and I ended up

watching some YouTube. Henry VIII of England and the fate of his unfortunate

wives are a favourite topic for many. The latest take, below, on the two women who

were actually executed. King Henry himself remains something of an enigma, though...

 

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Meta AI

Dark Ages, France; is it the case that ruling couples would routinely have each other murdered?

In medieval France, during the period known as the Dark Ages (roughly 5th to 10th centuries), royal marriages and power struggles were complex. While there were instances of violence and power struggles within royal families, it's not entirely accurate to say ruling couples routinely had each other murdered.

However, there were notable cases of royal spouses being murdered or suspected of plotting against each other. For example:

Queen Fredegund (ruler of Neustria, one of the Frankish kingdoms) was known for her ruthless tactics, including allegedly orchestrating the murder of her husband, King Chilperic I.

King Clotaire II had several wives and was involved in various power struggles.

These cases illustrate the brutal nature of medieval politics, but they don't necessarily support the claim that murdering one's spouse was a routine practice among ruling couples.

How did couples in those times 'move on' to entertain new relationships?

In medieval Europe, particularly during the Dark Ages, divorce or separation were not always options for couples, especially among royalty and nobility. Marriages were often arranged for political or economic reasons, and dissolving them could have significant consequences.

When royal couples did "move on," it often involved:

Divorce or annulment, which might be granted by the church due to reasons like consanguinity (blood relation) or lack of consummation.

One spouse might enter a monastery or convent, effectively ending the marriage.

In some cases, one spouse might be imprisoned, exiled, or even killed, allowing the other to remarry.

New relationships might be formed through remarriage after the death of a spouse or through extramarital affairs, which were often tolerated or kept discreet among the nobility.

I am trying to understand why Henry the VIII - who spoke six languages and was intelligent - could end up a serial murderer of his spouses...

Henry VIII's marital history and executions of two wives are well-documented. Some factors contributing to his actions include:

Desire for a male heir: Henry wanted a son to secure the Tudor dynasty.

Power struggles: Henry's desire for control and dominance led to conflicts with his wives.

Politics and alliances: Henry's marriages were often driven by politics and diplomacy.

Anne Boleyn's execution might be attributed to Henry's disappointment with her failure to produce a male heir and her perceived infidelity. Catherine Howard's execution was likely due to her alleged adultery and perceived threat to Henry's authority.

Henry's intelligence and linguistic abilities might have even contributed to his ability to justify and rationalize his actions.

Had anybody before Henry VIII resorted to having a mate tried and killed?

Yes, there were instances of royal spouses being executed or murdered before Henry VIII's time.

In England, one notable example is King John and his wife, Isabella of Angoulême. However, a more relevant example might be:

Anne Neville's father, Richard Neville, the 16th Earl of Warwick executed his wife's cousin's husband partly over property but his own wife lived.

However, a closer example is:

King Æthelred the Unready ordered the execution of his first wife Ælfgifu of York's brother and also her father but she lived and was sent back to her family.

Outside England:

In France, King Philip IV had his wife's alleged lovers executed, but she (Queen Joan II of Navarre's involvement is debated among historians) wasn't.

A more fitting example is:

Isabella of France and her lover supposedly had her husband King Edward II of England deposed and possibly murdered.

In Europe royal politics were deadly.

So it was having the women themselves executed that was novel...

Yes, having royal wives or noblewomen executed was relatively rare before Henry VIII's time. While women were sometimes involved in plots or accused of adultery, executing them for these reasons was not common practice among European monarchs.

Henry VIII's execution of two wives, Anne Boleyn and Catherine Howard, marked a significant departure from this trend. His actions set a precedent for future monarchs, but it was still unusual for royal wives to face capital punishment.

Were any royal wives executed after Henry VIII?

After Henry VIII, one notable example of a royal wife being executed is Marie Antoinette, the Queen of France, during the French Revolution in 1793. She was guillotined on charges of treason and other crimes.

In the British monarchy specifically, Henry VIII's actions remained somewhat unique. While there were certainly plots and executions of nobles and those accused of treason, executing royal wives was not a common practice after Henry VIII.

From the point of view of the present, was Ann Boleyn guilty of anything?

Anne Boleyn was accused of adultery, incest, and treason during her trial in 1536. From a modern historical perspective, many historians believe the charges were likely fabricated or exaggerated.

Some arguments for her innocence include:

Lack of concrete evidence: The accusations against Anne Boleyn were largely based on circumstantial evidence and testimony from coerced or unreliable witnesses.

Political motivations: Henry VIII's desire to marry his mistress, Jane Seymour, and his growing dissatisfaction with Anne Boleyn's failure to produce a male heir may have motivated the charges against her.

Questionable trial procedures: The trial was marked by irregularities and biases, which may have influenced the outcome.

Many historians now view Anne Boleyn's execution as a miscarriage of justice, driven by Henry VIII's political and personal interests rather than any genuine guilt on her part.

Am I correct in thinking that in the France of the Dark ages, a noble woman's dowry might include a kingdom?

In medieval Europe, including France during the Dark Ages and beyond, it was not uncommon for noble women to bring significant territories, titles, or even kingdoms as part of their dowry. This practice was often used to:

Secure alliances between noble families or kingdoms

Consolidate power and territory

Strengthen claims to thrones or titles

In some cases, a woman's dowry could indeed include a kingdom, duchy, or other significant territory, especially if she was an heiress or had strong claims to a particular region. This was particularly true for women from powerful families or those with limited male heirs.

The dowry would then become part of the husband's domain, and the marriage would help to secure his claims to the territory.